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Why the change?

August 05, 2008

Re "Prop. 8 rewording contested," July 29

California Atty. Gen. Jerry Brown decided to change the language of Proposition 8 on the ballot from "only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California" to wording saying that the measure seeks "to eliminate the right of same-sex couples to marry." If the meaning is the same, why is the change needed? If the meaning is different, the change contradicts the petition that put the proposition on the ballot. Either way, the change is groundless.

Vladimir Bogorad

Chatsworth

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